Stevo 0 Posted August 28, 2014 Report Share Posted August 28, 2014 Bonjour, Ma question sera simple : Dans mes documents j'ai deux types d'inerties pour section BA : une avec un le (coefficient d'équivalence) devant les termes des armatures (tout va bien jusque là :) ) et une autre avec le (coefficient d'équivalence -1) ! D'où vient ce - 1 et est-il faux ou juste ? Merci d'avance. Quote Link to post Share on other sites
CyrillH 11 Posted August 28, 2014 Report Share Posted August 28, 2014 Quote Link to post Share on other sites
Guest Invité Posted August 28, 2014 Report Share Posted August 28, 2014 Quote Link to post Share on other sites
Guest Invité Posted August 28, 2014 Report Share Posted August 28, 2014 Quote Link to post Share on other sites
CyrillH 11 Posted August 29, 2014 Report Share Posted August 29, 2014 (edited) Edited August 29, 2014 by CyrillH Quote Link to post Share on other sites
Stevo 0 Posted September 1, 2014 Author Report Share Posted September 1, 2014 Quote Link to post Share on other sites
CyrillH 11 Posted September 2, 2014 Report Share Posted September 2, 2014 Quote Link to post Share on other sites
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